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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q402-Q407):
NEW QUESTION # 402
During normal security monitoring activities, the following activity was observed:
cd C:UsersDocumentsHREmployees
takeown/f .*
SUCCESS:
Which of the following best describes the potentially malicious activity observed?
- A. File configuration changes
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Registry changes or anomalies
- D. Unauthorized privileges
Answer: D
Explanation:
The takeown command is used to take ownership of a file or folder that previously was denied access to the current user or group.
The activity observed indicates that someone has taken ownership of all files and folders under the C:UsersDocumentsHREmployees directory, which may contain sensitive or confidential information.
This could be a sign of unauthorized privileges, as the user or group may not have the legitimate right or need to access those files or folders.
Taking ownership of files or folders could also enable the user or group to modify or delete them, which could affect the integrity or availability of the data.
NEW QUESTION # 403
Which of the following are characteristics of Zero Trust Network Access?
- A. An attack surface and a protect surface
- B. A gateway controller and agent flows
- C. Virtualization and data protection
- D. Application programming interface security and continuous monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zero Trust Network Access is built around defining a protect surface and minimizing the attack surface, ensuring access controls are tightly scoped to critical data, applications, assets, and services.
NEW QUESTION # 404
A security analyst has received an incident case regarding malware spreading out of control on a customer's network. The analyst is unsure how to respond. The configured EDR has automatically obtained a sample of the malware and its signature. Which of the following should the analyst perform next to determine the type of malware, based on its telemetry?
- A. Log in to the affected systems and run necstat.
- B. Transfer the malware to a sandbox environment.
- C. Configure the EDR to perform a full scan.
- D. Cross-reference the signature with open-source threat intelligence.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.
Reference:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to "use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities". The book also covers the usage and syntax of EDR, a tool used for endpoint security, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of malware signatures and how they can be used to identify malware types1, page 203. It also discusses the benefits and challenges of using open-source threat intelligence sources to enhance security analysis1, page 211. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.
NEW QUESTION # 405
After updating the email client to the latest patch, only about 15% of the workforce is able to use email.
Windows 10 users do not experience issues, but Windows 11 users have constant issues. Which of the following did the change management team fail to do?
- A. Implementation
- B. Rollback
- C. Testing
- D. Validation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Testing is a crucial step in any change management process, as it ensures that the change is compatible with the existing systems and does not cause any errors or disruptions. In this case, the change management team failed to test the email client patch on Windows 11 devices, which resulted in a widespread issue for the users.
Testing would have revealed the problem before the patch was deployed, and allowed the team to fix it or postpone the change.
NEW QUESTION # 406
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-
Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. RCE
- C. ICMP tunneling
- D. Smurf attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack?
Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of ...3
NEW QUESTION # 407
......
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